10 exam-style questions with answers and explanations, straight from our 1,030-question bank. Tap an answer to check yourself. When you're ready, take the scored version in the free practice test.
The COMT exam has 190 questions and runs 3 hours.
These 10 free COMT questions are organized by exam domain, so you can see how each part of the Certified Ophthalmic Medical Technologist blueprint is tested. Reveal the answer and explanation under each question.
An adult calls moments after liquid drain cleaner splashed into one eye. The caller is still at the sink and has not rinsed the eye. What instruction should the technologist give first?
Correct answer: B - Begin continuous irrigation immediately with clean water or saline
A 4-year-old cannot name letters and speaks a language unfamiliar to the examiner, but reliably matches identical pictures. Which acuity approach is most appropriate?
Correct answer: C - Test each eye separately with a matching Lea, HOTV, or Allen-symbol method
A reliable Humphrey 30-2 field has an MD of -8.4 dB, 24 pattern-deviation points below 5%, 9 below 1%, no central 5-degree point at 0 dB, and one central point below 15 dB in only the superior hemifield. Under Hodapp-Parrish-Anderson criteria, how should the field be staged?
Correct answer: D - Moderate
During the swinging-flashlight test, both pupils constrict when the light is on the right eye. When the light moves to the left eye, both pupils dilate; returning the light to the right produces brisk constriction. What finding should be documented?
Correct answer: A - Left relative afferent pupillary defect
Goldmann applanation repeatedly reads 28 mmHg, but the fluorescein mires are very wide and the patient squeezes at each approach. The cornea is otherwise clear. What is the best next step before accepting the pressure?
Correct answer: C - Reduce excess fluorescein, coach relaxation, and repeat the measurement
A patient has a right hypertropia that increases in left gaze and on right head tilt. The patient habitually tilts the head to the left to reduce diplopia. Which diagnosis best fits this pattern?
Correct answer: B - Right trochlear nerve palsy
Cover-uncover testing at near shows no refixation movement. During alternate cover testing, each eye moves outward when uncovered. Which recording and prism direction are correct?
Correct answer: D - Esophoria; base-out prism
Retinoscopy performed at 67 cm is neutralized with a gross result of +2.75 -1.25 x 180. Which net result should be recorded before subjective refinement?
Correct answer: A - +1.25 -1.25 x 180
Contact A-scan measurements cluster tightly at 23.04, 23.06, and 23.05 mm, but the probe visibly indents the cornea. Immersion readings are 23.82, 23.86, and 23.84 mm with well-formed spikes. How should these data be handled?
Correct answer: C - Use the repeatable immersion set after confirming laterality and waveform quality
A patient with reduced color saturation and a central scotoma has a normal full-field ERG but a reproducibly delayed pattern-reversal VEP P100. Which conclusion best fits the test combination?
Correct answer: B - Postretinal conduction delay involving the optic nerve or visual pathway
The COMT exam also covers these domains. Drill them in the full free practice test:
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